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Old 5th September 2010, 12:21 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by myLivingBread View Post
Catholic apologist said:

The Catholic Church has no verse by verse interpretation of the Bible. According to James Akin there are only less than 7 verses in the Bible which has been interpreted by the Church officially.

protestant said:

"How can a Roman Catholic interpret John 3:16? As you (R.Catholics) stated above that there are no verse by verse official interpretation we can use logic and literal interpretation. So can we apply that on John 3:16,18?"

{3:16} Sic enim Deus dilexit mundum, ut Filium suum unigenitum daret: ut omnis, qui credit in eum, non pereat, sed habeat vitam Šternam.
{3:16} For God so loved the world that he gave his only-begotten Son, so that all who believe in him may not perish, but may have eternal life.

The Latin has the verbs 'to perish' and 'to have' in the subjective tense, meaning 'may not perish' and 'may have'. The text does not say 'will have' as if faith alone determined salvation. The Greek text also has both verbs in the subjective tense (UBS text, Majority Text, and Textus Receptus agree).

Akin is completely wrong in his claim that the Magisterium has only ever given an official intepretation of 7 verses. There are numerous magisterial documents that cite verses and explain their meaning as an act of the Magisterium, including Concilar documents, Papal Encyclicals, documents of the Holy See. Nearly every magisterial document of any length cites Scripture and gives an interpretation as an act of the Magisterium.

We do not use logic and literal interpretation. We rely on the teachings of Tradition, of other Scripture passages, and of the Magisterium in order to understand the meaning of any verse.
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Ron Conte
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