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Old 29th November 2014, 03:45 AM
suko suko is offline
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Default Indirect Participation of Sin

Hi guys, can I get some input on the morality of indirect participation of the sins that others may commit.

Here's 2 examples:

1) Paying taxes to a government that uses the tax money for gravely immoral activities. Should a person choose to not pay them and risk getting jailed or killed if they know for 100% certain they will be used to fund grave activities/evils?

2) A person needs gas for his car to get to and from work since it is far, but the gas company (and it's the only gas company within a thousand miles from where he lives) will use the funds that it receives for gravely immoral purposes/activities. This person, too, has a wife and kids, and needs to keep his job so that he can put food on the table for them. Is it morally permissible for the person to continue funding this gas company?


How does one reconcile these examples with what it says in the Catechism in paragraph 1868, particularly where it states:

Quote:
...Moreover, we have a responsibility for the sins committed by others when we cooperate in them:

- by participating directly and voluntarily in them;
...
Thanks!

Last edited by suko : 29th November 2014 at 04:17 AM.
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Old 29th November 2014, 10:33 AM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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1 and 2 are moral under the principle of cooperation with evil.
See my booklet on the subject:
http://www.amazon.com/Roman-Catholic...dp/B007JXNTX6/
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