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Old 2nd April 2008, 02:46 PM
St. Thomas More St. Thomas More is offline
Join Date: Jan 2007
Location: New York State
Posts: 367
Default "The Pill" as Medicine


The Birth Control Pill is sinful because contraception is intrinsically evil since it frustrates the procreative and unitive intents of sexual intercourse. If Woman A has cancer and needs her ovaries or uterus removed, she would be rendered infertile, but still be permitted to have intercourse. She would be permitted to cure herself of the cancer, despite the bad effect on her reproductive system.

Suppose Woman B has a cyst and a responsible NFP only physician prescribes the Pill to remove the cyst. The Pill would be temporary. Suppose that the woman can also pinpoint when ovulation may occur, through NFP methods or an ovulation test. Would it be permissible for her to have sexual relations when she's ruled out ovulation, so as to avoid an abortofacient effect? If not, how is this different than Woman A? In both cases, there is a legitimate medicinal use for the object which causes infertility. Since the pill is medicinal and causes infertility as a side-effect (not the intended purpose) is Woman B in any different circumstance (where she cannot have sexual intercourse) than Woman A, who can have sexual intercourse?
St. Thomas More
--"The King's Good Servant, but God's First"

Last edited by St. Thomas More : 2nd April 2008 at 02:48 PM. Reason: Rewording
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