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  #1  
Old 7th February 2020, 06:50 PM
Petedasheep Petedasheep is offline
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Default Implicit perfect contrition

This has probably been covered elsewhere so forgive me.

It relates to implicit perfect contrition as found on the primer to Roman Catholic Salvation Theology.

To quote:
"Perfect contrition is fully implicit when the person has sorrow for his sins out of explicit love for his neighbor (who was harmed by his sins), implicitly loving God and implicitly desiring the Sacrament of Confession."

My question is: Just as it takes just one objectively mortal sin to lose sanctifying grace, is it also true that it just takes one explicit act of love in order for a person to regain or obtain sanctifying grace? I can envisage a scenario where a sinful person caused many offences against many of his neighbours, but in the same way would one sample be sufficient, if that act was in cooperation with Gods grace?

In the sacrament there's only one object of our love, God himself working through the priest and this is sufficient for reconciliation. But when it comes to loving our neighbour there maybe many objects and i'm finding it hard to see where the sufficiency would be since perfectly loving our neighbour may apply to many objects.

Hope I've articulated that right..
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Old 7th February 2020, 09:56 PM
Brother Brother is offline
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Originally Posted by Petedasheep View Post
My question is: Just as it takes just one objectively mortal sin to lose sanctifying grace, is it also true that it just takes one explicit act of love in order for a person to regain or obtain sanctifying grace?

A person loses sanctifying grace only if his/her objective mortal sin is also an actual moral sin. Three things are needed for a sin to be actual mortal sin: full knowledge, full deliberation, and grave matter.

An act of implicit perfect contrition recovers the state of sanctifying grace (that is, friendship with God).

"An act of love is sufficient for the adult to obtain sanctifying grace and to supply the lack of baptism.” (Pope Pius XII; Address to Midwives, n. 21a).

If a person has been very sinful throughout his life, but is saved by one act of love in full cooperation with grace before his death. That person is saved by recovering sanctifying grace before his death, but that person shall go to Heaven by way of Purgatory for though that person's sins were forgiven by such act of love, that person still has punishment due to sin to purge or to expiate.
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Old 7th February 2020, 10:16 PM
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Originally Posted by Petedasheep View Post
In the sacrament there's only one object of our love, God himself working through the priest and this is sufficient for reconciliation. But when it comes to loving our neighbour there maybe many objects and i'm finding it hard to see where the sufficiency would be since perfectly loving our neighbour may apply to many objects.

The advantage of the Sacrament of Reconciliation (or Penance), is that no perfect contrition is needed in order to recover sanctifying grace and thus be saved if the person dies in that state. Only imperfect contrition or attrition is needed with this Sacrament, but the repentance of all past sins (especially the mortal ones, if any) has to be sincere with a firm purpose amendment (of sinning no more). But, of course, we have to strive for the better, to improve ourselves, to be perfectly contrite, to repent out of love God, abhorring sin which offend God, to be saints.
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Old 7th February 2020, 11:11 PM
Petedasheep Petedasheep is offline
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Great, thanks for the answer Brother, that makes sense.

So, if a perfect act of love is needed to receive sanctifying grace, does it follow that all such acts of love of this quality are impossible without Gods prevenient grace?

Does a perfect act of love belong to those acts that are impossible naturally, even though our natures are good?

Last edited by Petedasheep : 7th February 2020 at 11:12 PM. Reason: typo
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Old 8th February 2020, 01:19 AM
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Originally Posted by Petedasheep View Post
Great, thanks for the answer Brother, that makes sense.

So, if a perfect act of love is needed to receive sanctifying grace, does it follow that all such acts of love of this quality are impossible without Gods prevenient grace?

Yes, we are all affected by prevenient grace. The merits that we get in order to be rewarded in Heaven are according to our response to God’s grace which are prevenient and subsequent for our acts (actual grace) (it is also sanctifying for our state of being). God is the initiator, He has the initiative, not us. But it’s up to us to respond to that initiative of God. If we do, that’s when we gain merits.

A person in a state of actual mortal sin, even though he completely lacks sanctifying grace, still receives prevenient grace, and is still able to cooperate with subsequent actual grace.

No one ever cooperates with prevenient grace; to do so is entirely impossible. Only subsequent grace allows for cooperation.

“Every time we begin to pray to Jesus in the Holy Spirit who draws us on the way of prayer by his prevenient grace” – (CCC# 2670).

As soon as we cooperate with grace, it is no longer prevenient grace, but cooperating (or subsequent) grace.

Quote:
Does a perfect act of love belong to those acts that are impossible naturally, even though our natures are good?

Grace gives us the ability to act beyond nature, to share in the good acts of God.

God gives everyone prevenient grace, because He designed human nature so that it cannot function properly without grace and cannot avoid sin without grace.

All sinners, no matter how wicked, have prevenient grace. They are culpable for their sins because they were moved and enabled by God to do good, and to avoid doing evil, and subsequently they refused. They did not sin for lack of grace. They were affected by grace, and subsequently they turned away.

Some moral acts deserve neither reward nor punishment; such acts are morally permissible, but can be done without cooperation with grace, and so they do not deserve a reward (these acts can be called 'natural' such as: eating, exercising, going to sleep, etc., they are moral because human nature is good). Even so, if a merely natural act, such as eating, is done in cooperation with grace, for example, with grace-filled thanks to God, the act is both morally good and also meritorious.

Every cooperation with grace deserves a reward. Every sinful failure to cooperate with grace deserves a punishment. However, some failures to cooperate with grace are merely imperfections, and not sins. Not every failure to cooperate with grace is immoral. But every act of cooperation with grace is not only moral, but also holy, salvific and meritorious.

Grace is before, during, after every holy act. Our every cooperation with grace is always preceded by the free gift of prevenient grace. And every cooperation with grace merits an increase in grace.
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  #6  
Old 10th February 2020, 06:08 PM
Petedasheep Petedasheep is offline
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Thanks for the replies. I'm going to have to mull over the answers you gave but it seems to make sense.
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