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  #1  
Old 14th May 2012, 12:23 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Default What did Jesus say about gay marriage?

Here is my post on this subject:
What Jesus said about homosexuality and same-sex marriage

Jesus did condemn homosexuality, and He did define marriage as between one man and one woman. But it is also important to remember that all of Tradition, all of Scripture, and the Magisterium is Christ speaking to us.
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Old 20th May 2012, 11:14 PM
Dan A Dan A is offline
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I posted the link on my facebook page and people like it (as did I). I have friends that are pro-gay marriage (of the it doesn't affect me mentality). I doubt they will try and discuss this.
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Old 21st May 2012, 01:59 AM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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thanks for the link.
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Old 27th May 2012, 07:48 PM
Arax Arax is offline
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Ron,

Thanks for this article. I had read a post with your explanation before, but wasn't sure where to find it. I wanted to share it with others, but couldn't remember the details. Now I can just print it out and refer to it as necessary. I don't think most people realize the deficiencies in the current translations referring to this matter.

Julie
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Old 27th May 2012, 09:16 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Arax View Post
Ron,

Thanks for this article. I had read a post with your explanation before, but wasn't sure where to find it. I wanted to share it with others, but couldn't remember the details. Now I can just print it out and refer to it as necessary. I don't think most people realize the deficiencies in the current translations referring to this matter.

Julie

Yes, there is a tendency in modern versions of the Bible to make translation choices that obscure unpopular teachings. For example, the word 'Hell' has been removed from some modern versions, including the NABRE. They use every other possible word, but never Hell. It's not politically correct.

The same is true for the term homosexuality; they use other words that are more general, even when the meaning of the word is clear.

Inclusive language is similar problem. The text plainly says "my people, the sons of Israel", and they translate it as "my people the Israelites". Or the text says "brothers", and they translate it as "brothers and sisters". Other verses actually say "brothers and sisters" in the original text, so how does it make sense to claim that "brothers" by itself really means "brothers and sisters"?
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Old 28th May 2012, 04:21 PM
Arax Arax is offline
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I still don't have a copy of your translation of the Bible. I'm more determined than ever to get a copy of it now. I feel as if I'm being misled by people who realize that I don't know enough about something to do anything about it.

Recently I went back to school with the intention of studying foreign languages. While my main motivation is economic I hope to have the opportunity to at least study some Latin. Hebrew and Greek may be more than I can manage, but I would like to have a better understanding of the ancient texts.

At least I feel confident in your translation. I can't remember the exact quote just now, but I'm reminded of the passage where Jesus cautions anyone from changing a dot or even a tittle of the scriptures to suit their purposes. Perhaps you know which one I mean?
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Old 28th May 2012, 04:39 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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my translation, the CPDV, is available
for Kindle
in print
and free online.

[Matthew]
{5:17} Do not think that I have come to loosen the law or the prophets. I have not come to loosen, but to fulfill.
{5:18} Amen I say to you, certainly, until heaven and earth pass away, not one iota, not one dot shall pass away from the law, until all is done.
{5:19} Therefore, whoever will have loosened one of the least of these commandments, and have taught men so, shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven. But whoever will have done and taught these, such a one shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.
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