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  #11  
Old 19th March 2010, 01:16 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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So an act is basically a choice of the free will. But the will can only choose based on what is known by the intellect. Each knowing choice is an act, and each act must be good before God, who is infinite Goodness.

Nothing can cause a good act to become bad, or a bad act to become good. Whether or not an act is good or bad is based on the eternal unchanging Nature of God.

Questions so far?
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  #12  
Old 19th March 2010, 04:25 PM
VKallin VKallin is offline
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Default No Questions so far.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Ron Conte View Post
So an act is basically a choice of the free will. But the will can only choose based on what is known by the intellect. Each knowing choice is an act, and each act must be good before God, who is infinite Goodness.

Nothing can cause a good act to become bad, or a bad act to become good. Whether or not an act is good or bad is based on the eternal unchanging Nature of God.

Questions so far?

The introduction and the basics seem pretty obvious and straight forward.

My book arrived today, and I was surprised by the size and weight. It has obviously taken some time and effort to produce this work.
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  #13  
Old 19th March 2010, 05:21 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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CCE .220.

What is the difference between an actual sin and an objective sin?

Can a sin ever be both actual sin and objective sin?

Can a sin ever be an actual sin but not an objective sin?

Can a sin ever be neither actual sin, nor objective sin, but still be a sin?

I realize that some persons don't have the book yet, but you might be able to answer the questions without the book. Also, I will explain the answers later.
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  #14  
Old 19th March 2010, 09:37 PM
sammy sammy is offline
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Ron Conte View Post
CCE .220.

What is the difference between an actual sin and an objective sin?

Can a sin ever be both actual sin and objective sin?

Can a sin ever be an actual sin but not an objective sin?

Can a sin ever be neither actual sin, nor objective sin, but still be a sin?

I realize that some persons don't have the book yet, but you might be able to answer the questions without the book. Also, I will explain the answers later.

1. An objective sin is an offense against God apart from the knowingly chosen decision that the sin was an offense against God. An actual sin is a knowingly chosen act done against or in offense to God.
2. yes. I would say most sin is actual sin because the sinner knows it offends God and he or she is correct- it really does offend God (objectively).
3. yes. A sinner may think he is offending God but objectively he is not but because he thinks he is, it is an actual sin.
4. I do not know. Original sin?

Last edited by sammy : 19th March 2010 at 09:39 PM.
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  #15  
Old 19th March 2010, 10:22 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Good. I'll clarify a little.

What is the difference between an actual sin and an objective sin?
Objective sin is an act that would be an actual sin if it is knowingly chosen.
Objective sin is an immoral act; it is an act that is contrary to the moral law.
Actual sin is a knowingly chosen immoral act.

Can a sin ever be both actual sin and objective sin?
Yes. Usually, an actual sin is also objectively a sin.

Can a sin ever be an actual sin but not an objective sin?
If the person chooses an act mistakenly thinking that the act is immoral, he sins, even though the act is moral. Then the act is an actual sin, but not an objective sin.

Can a sin ever be neither actual sin, nor objective sin, but still be a sin?
Personal sin only includes culpability (guilt) if it is an actual sin. If an act is not an actual sin, and is not an objective sin, then the act is moral.

Original sin is a separate question which we will discuss later. When Adam and Eve committed original sin, for them it was personal sin. For us, when we inherit original sin, we don't really inherit sin, but the effects of sin.
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  #16  
Old 20th March 2010, 12:45 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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CCE .021.

Saint Thomas Aquinas: "Therefore when the soul is so disordered by sin as to turn away from its last end, viz. God, to Whom it is united by charity, there is mortal sin; but when it is disordered without turning away from God, there is venial sin."

Pope John Paul II: "And when through sin, the soul commits a disorder that reaches the point of turning away from its ultimate end, God, to which it is bound by charity, then the sin is mortal; on the other hand, whenever the disorder does not reach the point of a turning away from God, the sin is venial. For this reason venial sin does not deprive the sinner of sanctifying grace, friendship with God, charity and therefore eternal happiness, whereas just such a deprivation is precisely the consequence of mortal sin."

Mortal sins are entirely incompatible with true love of God and neighbor.
Venial sins are to some extent contrary to, but not entirely incompatible with, true love of God and neighbor.
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  #17  
Old 22nd March 2010, 12:15 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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CCE .022.

Whosoever dies in a state of grace is saved and will have eternal life in Heaven. Whosoever dies not in a state of grace is condemned and will have eternal death in Hell. Repentance from any and all actual mortal sins, prior to death, is absolutely required for eternal life (eternal salvation).

The matter of an act is the objective morality of the act, apart from knowledge and choice.

An actual sin has three elements:
knowledge,
choice,
the matter of the act.

An actual mortal sin has three elements:

full knowledge,
full choice (i.e. full consent, full deliberation)
grave matter.

An act has grave matter if is it entirely incompatible with true love of God, neighbor, self.
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  #18  
Old 22nd March 2010, 12:24 PM
Shane Shane is offline
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Thanks Ron for explaining. That is a very helpful way in differentiating venial from mortal sin.

As regards the matter of the act itself, is this ever difficult to identify? How does one understand that such an act constitutes grave matter (mortal sin) as opposed to matter of a lesser extent (venial)?
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  #19  
Old 22nd March 2010, 01:07 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Quote:
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Thanks Ron for explaining. That is a very helpful way in differentiating venial from mortal sin.

As regards the matter of the act itself, is this ever difficult to identify? How does one understand that such an act constitutes grave matter (mortal sin) as opposed to matter of a lesser extent (venial)?

The three fonts of morality are used to distinguish grave matter from venial matter. We will discuss the details of the three fonts soon.

An act that has grave matter, but lacks either full knowledge or full consent, is an objective mortal sin; it is objectively a mortal sin, but is not an actual mortal sin, due to a lack of full knowledge or full consent.

An act that has at least some knowledge that the act is immoral, and at least some free consent to that act, and is immoral (or believed to be immoral) is at least an actual venial sin.
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  #20  
Old 24th March 2010, 12:48 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Default invincible ignorance

.023.

When there is a substantial lack of knowledge that the act is immoral, despite substantial sincere efforts by the individual to find the truth of morality as it pertains to that act and to acts in general, then the culpability is substantially reduced, even in some cases to the extent of no culpability at all. This complete reduction of culpability is called invincible ignorance. It occurs when the individual did not know and could not know, within the particular limitations of that individual's life, that the act was immoral.

Give an example of:

1. an objective mortal sin committed with invincible ignorance,

2. the same sin committed with reduced culpability due to substantial lack of knowledge,

3. the same sin committed with where the lack of knowlenge is minor.
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