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Old 6th September 2012, 09:16 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Default Is Contraception Immoral Outside of Marriage?

Contraception is immoral regardless of marital state. The sin of contraception is any deliberate act that is inherently ordered, by the nature of the act, toward depriving any sexual act of its procreative meaning. Every intrinsically evil act is immoral regardless of intention or circumstances.

To be moral, each and every sexual act must have only good in its object. The object (or moral object) of any act is the proximate (morally-immediate) end toward which the act is ordered. Every act with only good in the moral object is ordered in harmony with the love of God above all else and the love of neighbor as self. To be moral, each and every sexual act must have three goods in the moral object:
1. the marital meaning
2. the unitive meaning
3. the procreative meaning

All non-marital sexual acts are gravely immoral due to the deprivation of a good required by the love of God and neighbor: the marital meaning.

All non-unitive sexual acts are gravely immoral due to the deprivation of a good required by the love of God and neighbor: the unitive meaning.

All non-procreative sexual acts are gravely immoral due to the deprivation of a good required by the love of God and neighbor: the procreative meaning.

What happens, though, if a sexual act is deprived of more than one of these three goods? In that case, the act is more disordered, and so it is even more gravely immoral. A non-marital sexual act with contraception is more disordered than a non-marital sexual act without contraception because the former act has two grave moral deprivations, and the latter act has only one of those two.

Here is my lengthy article on The Use of Contraception Outside of Marriage
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