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Old 28th April 2008, 03:37 PM
Bible Apprentice Bible Apprentice is offline
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Default Exodus 4:24-26

Can someone help me out with this?

What is the significance of this passage from Exodus?

{4:24} And while he was on the journey, at an inn, the Lord met him, and he was willing to kill him.
{4:25} For this reason, Zipporah took a very sharp stone, and she circumcised the foreskin of her son, and she touched his feet, and she said, “You are a bloody spouse to me.”
{4:26} And he released him, after she had said, “You are a bloody spouse,” because of the circumcision.

This totally baffles me. God dispatches Moses on a mission and as he embarks on the mission, God is willing to kill him -- with no apparent warning.

Why?

How did Zipporah know what to do?

How does the circumcision of the son prevent the killing of Moses?

At first glance, it seems that Zipporah touches the son's feet, but then she refers to him as a bloody spouse. So was it Moses' feet she touched?

Weren't circumcisions supposed to be performed by men? Why is Zipporah allowed to do it in this case?
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  #2  
Old 28th April 2008, 07:52 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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[Exodus]
{4:24} And while he was on the journey, at an inn, the Lord met him, and he was willing to kill him.
{4:25} For this reason, Zipporah took a very sharp stone, and she circumcised the foreskin of her son, and she touched his feet, and she said, “You are a bloody spouse to me.”
{4:26} And he released him, after she had said, “You are a bloody spouse,” because of the circumcision.

It seems, from the context of the story, that the one the Lord was willing to kill was not Moses, but the firstborn son of Moses. The prior verse spoke about firstborn sons, so the editor placed this event immediately after that text.

We are not told why the son of Moses might be killed by God. It may be because Moses killed an Egyptian man. It may be some sin committed by his wife.

On the spiritual level of meaning, it may be a foreshadowing of the death of the Son of God. Recall that Abraham was required by God to be willing to kill his own son, but then God did not take his life. Something similar happens with the son of Moses.

Zipporah may have derived that act from some type of ceremony among her people; or it may have been an act inspired by the grace of God as a foreshadowing of future events.

How does the circumcision of the son prevent the killing of the son?
It was an act relating the son of Moses to the Israelites (the chosen people), to the Promise to Abraham, and to Christ.

At first glance, it seems that Zipporah touches the son's feet, but then she refers to him as a bloody spouse. So was it Moses' feet she touched?

She touches the feet of the son of Moses. Touching the feet has some type of symbolic significance. At the spiritual level of meaning, it signifies the bloody feet of Christ. In this figure, Zipporah represents Mary at the bloody feet of Christ.

She did not fully understand her own actions, which had a significance beyond her ability to understand. She acted in response to God's grace, and her actions are a type of revelation from God.

Weren't circumcisions supposed to be performed by men?
Why is Zipporah allowed to do it in this case?

Consider that in modern Catholicism, there are rules under Canon Law, but these are dispensible as long as the dispensation does not violate the moral law. Similarly, Zipporah's actions were not contrary to the moral law (and the Jewish Law had not yet been established), so God permitted this as a foreshadowing of future events.
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Old 29th April 2008, 09:17 PM
Bible Apprentice Bible Apprentice is offline
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Wow, that is amazing. I am in awe at how much information and wisdom is containted in each word of the Holy Bible -- even the most seemgly obscure parts. Thanks for all the information.

Peace.
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