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Old 9th November 2008, 04:55 AM
Ken
 
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Default The Lord said to my Lord

Luke:
Quote:
{20:41} But he said to them: “How can they say that the Christ is the son of David?
{20:42} Even David himself says, in the book of Psalms: ‘The Lord said to my Lord, sit at my right hand,
{20:43} until I set your enemies as your footstool.’
{20:44} Therefore, David calls him Lord. So how can he be his son?”

Psalm 110:
Quote:
The LORD says to my Lord:
"Sit at my right hand
until I make your enemies
a footstool for your feet."

(Sidenote: I really dislike translations that use "The LORD", it really confuses the different original language terms that get condensed into "LORD".)

Anyway, this verse has always been very confusing to me.
1.) What is Jesus's intent? Is he saying that he is not a son of David? Or not "merely" a son of David, aka he already existed at the time David wrote that?

2.) In the quote from Luke, my question was: "Who are the two 'Lords'?" Given the useful refinement of Psalm 110, who is the second Lord? Is David the king at this point or not, if so, who is his Lord?

My NJB has indicates CF's for Jos 10:24 and Dan 7:14

Jos 10:24:
Quote:
When they had brought these kings to Joshua, he summoned all the men of Israel and said to the army commanders who had come with him, "Come here and put your feet on the necks of these kings." So they came forward and placed their feet on their necks.

Dan 7:14:
Quote:
13 "In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. 14 He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all peoples, nations and men of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed.

I don't find those CF's useful....
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  #2  
Old 9th November 2008, 01:17 PM
Ron Conte Ron Conte is offline
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Join Date: Jan 2006
Posts: 12,592
Default

[Mark]
{12:35} And while teaching in the temple, Jesus said in answer: “How is it that the scribes say that the Christ is the son of David?
{12:36} For David himself said in the Holy Spirit: ‘The Lord said to my Lord: Sit at my right hand, until I set your enemies as your footstool.’
{12:37} Therefore, David himself calls him Lord, and so how can he be his son?” And a great multitude listened to him willingly.

In this passage, Jesus used the OT LORD and the word Lord as having much the same meaning. So the Latin and English use of LORD to translate the Hebrew is justified.

David said in the Holy Spirit: The LORD (God the Father) said to my Lord (God the Son). So this verse refers specifically to the Trinity. David had a limited understanding about the Messiah, which is why he could only say those words in the Holy Spirit; he himself did not understand the Trinity.

the answer to the question is that Jesus is Lord because he is God (Divine Nature) and he is the son of David because he is a man (human nature). One person with two natures.
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